0 Aptitude questions for competitive exams solved question paper

Aptitude questions for Competitive Exams Question paper

 

 

1.If 2x-y=4 then 6x-3y=?
(a)15
(b)12
(c)18
(d)10

Ans. (b)

2.If x=y=2z and xyz=256 then what is the value of x?

(a)12
(b)8
(c)16
(d)6

Ans. (b)

3. (1/10)18 - (1/10)20 = ?
(a) 99/1020
(b) 99/10
(c) 0.9
(d) none of these

Ans. (a)

4.Pipe A can fill in 20 minutes and Pipe B in 30 mins
and Pipe C can
empty the same in 40 mins.If all of them work
together, find the time
taken to fill the tank
(a) 17 1/7 mins
(b) 20 mins
(c) 8 mins
(d) none of these

Ans. (a)

5. Thirty men take 20 days to complete a job working 9
hours a day.How
many hour a day should 40 men work to complete the
job?
(a) 8 hrs
(b) 7 1/2 hrs
(c) 7 hrs
(d) 9 hrs

Ans. (b)

6. Find the smallest number in a GP whose sum is 38
and product 1728
(a) 12
(b) 20
(c) 8
(d) none of these

Ans. (c)

7. A boat travels 20 kms upstream in 6 hrs and 18 kms
downstream in 4
hrs.Find the speed of the boat in still water and the
speed of the
water current?
(a) 1/2 kmph
(b) 7/12 kmph
(c) 5 kmph
(d) none of these

Ans. (b)

8. A goat is tied to one corner of a square plot of
side 12m by a rope
7m long.Find the area it can graze?
(a) 38.5 sq.m
(b) 155 sq.m
(c) 144 sq.m
(d) 19.25 sq.m

Ans. (a)

9. Mr. Shah decided to walk down the escalator of a
tube station. He
found that if he walks down 26 steps, he requires 30
seconds to
reach the bottom. However, if he steps down 34 stairs
he would only
require 18 seconds to get to the bottom. If the time
is measured from
the moment the top step begins to descend to the
time he steps off
the last step at the bottom, find out the height of
the stair way in
steps?

Ans.46 steps.

10. The average age of 10 members of a committee is
the same as it was
4 years ago, because an old member has been replaced
by a young
member. Find how much younger is the new member ?

Ans.40 years.

11. Three containers A, B and C have volumes a, b, and
c respectively;
and container A is full of water while the other two
are empty. If
from container A water is poured into container B
which becomes 1/3
full, and into container C which becomes 1/2 full, how
much water is
left in container A?

12. ABCE is an isosceles trapezoid and ACDE is a
rectangle. AB = 10
and EC = 20. What is the length of AE?

Ans. AE = 10.

13. In the given figure, PA and PB are tangents to the
circle at A and
B respectively and the chord BC is parallel to
tangent PA. If AC = 6
cm, and length of the tangent AP is 9 cm, then what
is the length of
the chord BC?

Ans. BC = 4 cm.

15 Three cards are drawn at random from an ordinary
pack of cards.
Find the probability that they will consist of a king,
a queen and an ace.

Ans. 64/2210.

16. A number of cats got together and decided to kill
between them
999919 mice. Every cat killed an equal number of
mice. Each cat
killed more mice than there were cats. How many cats
do you think
there were ?

Ans. 991.

17. If Log2 x - 5 Log x + 6 = 0, then what would the
value / values of
x be?
Ans. x = e2 or e3.

18. The square of a two digit number is divided by
half the number.
After 36 is added to the quotient, this sum is then
divided by 2.
The digits of the resulting number are the same as
those in the
original number, but they are in reverse order. The
ten's place of
the original number is equal to twice the difference
between its
digits. What is the number?

Ans. 46

19.Can you tender a one rupee note in such a manner
that there shall
be total 50 coins but none of them would be 2 paise
coins.?

Ans. 45 one paisa coins, 2 five paise coins, 2 ten
paise coins, and 1
twenty-five paise coins.

20.A monkey starts climbing up a tree 20ft. tall. Each
hour, it hops
3ft. and slips back 2ft. How much time would it take
the monkey to
reach the top?

Ans.18 hours.


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0 Sample Po Paper

1. A clock shows the time as 6 a.m. If the minute hand gains 2 minutes every hour, how many minutes will the clock gain by 9 p.m.?
(a) 30 minutes
(b) 25 minutes
(c) 28 minutes
(d) 34 minutes
2. Find the right number, from the given options, at the place marked by the question mark: 2, 4, 8, 32, 256, ?
(a) 4096
(b) 8192
(c) 512
(d) 1024
3. Find the number missing at question mark:
    10, 11, 23, 39, 64, ?, 149
(a) 100
(b) 103
(c) 78
(d) 128
4. A super fast bus of KSRTC starting from ‘Trivandrum’ and     reaches ‘Attingal’ in 45 minutes with an average speed of 40 km/hr. If the speed is increased by 10 km/hr how much time it will take to cover the same distance?
(a) 34 minutes (b) 36 minutes (c) 38 minutes (d) 40 minutes
5. The difference between 6 times and 8 times of a figure is 14.  What is the figure?
    (a) 12 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 6
6. If 92y = 36 what is 9y?
    (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 18
7. One fourth percent of 180 is:
    (a) 4.5 (b) 0.45 (c) 0.045 (d) 45
8. A candidate appearing for an examination has to secure 40% marks to pass paper I. But he secured only 40 marks and failed by 20 marks. What is the maximum mark for paper I?
    (a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 180 (d) 150
9. Find the missing number 32, 52, 74, 112, 135 ……………
    (a) 16 (b) 15 (c) 17 (d) 14
10. If 250 is increased to 300, what is the percentage increase?
     (a) 16.67 (b) 20 (c) 23 (d) 17
11. The ratio of 9 seconds to 10 hours is ………….
     (a) 1:40 (b) 1:4000 (c) 9:10 (d) 1:400
12. A person lost 10% when he sold goods at Rs.153. For how much should he sell them to gain 20%?
     (a) 204 (b) 250 (c) 240 (d) 210
13. What will be xy if 7862xy is to be divisible by 125?
     (a) 25 (b) 00 (c) 75 (d) 50
14. A train of 100 meters long is running at the speed of 36 km per hour. In what time it passes a bridge of 80 meters long?
     (a) 30 seconds (b) 36 seconds (c) 20 seconds (d) 18 seconds
15. If two-third of a bucket is filled in one minute then the time taken to fill the bucket completely will be …….
     (a) 90 seconds (b) 70 seconds (c) 60 seconds (d) 100 seconds
16. If a quarter kilogram costs Rs. 60 then how much will cost for 150 grams?
     (a) Rs. 30 (b) Rs. 24 (c) Rs. 36 (d) Rs. 40
17. If 3 men or 6 boys can do a piece of work in 20 days then how many days with 6 men and 8 boys take to do the same work?
     (a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 6
18. Find the sum of first 100 natural numbers
     (a) 5050 (b) 5005 (c) 9900 (d) 9050
19. Two poles of height 6 meters and 11 meters stand on a plane ground. If the distance between their feet is 12 meters then find the difference in the distance between their tops:
     (a) 12m (b) 5m (c) 13m (d) 11m
20. How many balls of radius 4 cm can be made from a solid sphere of lead of radius 8 cm?
     (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 2
21. The solution to x2 +6x+9 = 0 is ……..
     (a) x1 = + 3, x2 = -3 (b) x1 = 3, x2 = 3
     (c) x1 = -3, x2 = -3 (d) No solution
22. What is the chance of getting a 2 or 4 in rolling a die?
     (a) 2/3 (b) 1/6 (c) 1/3 (d) 1/2
23. At what rate of simple interest per annum an amount will be doubled in 10 years?
     (a) 10% (b) 7.5% (c) 16% (d) 15%
24. Five times an unknown number is 5 less than 50. The unknown number
     (a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 9 (d) 5
25. The acute angle between the hour hand and minute hand of a clock at 4 PM
     (a) 900 (b) 1200 (c) 1500 (d) 2400
26. Water is filled in a cylindrical vessel in such a way that its volume doubles after every five minutes. If it takes 30 minutes for the vessel to be full, then the vessel will be one fourth full in
     (a) 20 minute (b) 25 minutes
     (c) 7 minutes 30 seconds (d) 10 minutes
27. If 10 cats can kill 10 rats in 10 minutes how long will it take 100 cats to kill 100 rats
     (a) 1 minutes (b) 10 minute (c) 100 minutes (d) 10000 minutes
28. If 75 % of a number is added to 75, the result is the number itself, then the number is:
     (a) 250 (b) 750 (c) 400 (d) 300
29. A school has enough food for 400 children for 12 days. How long will the food last if 80 more children join them?
    (a) 6 days (b) 7 days (c) 10 days (d) 8 days
30. The sum of two consecutive numbers is 55, which is the largest number?
     (a) 25 (b) 28 (c) 26 (d) 27
31. When a shop keeper sold 2/3 of an item, he got the cost price of the whole lot. What is the percentage of his profit?
     (a) 33 1/8 % (b) 66 2/3 % (c) 25 % (d) 50 %
32. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 480 meters and the ratio between the length and breadth is 5:3. The area of the field is:
     (a) 7,200m2 (b) 15,000m2 (c) 54,000m2 (d) 13,500m2
33. If you add 100 to a certain number, the result will be more than, if you multiply that number by 1000 what is that number?
     (a) 1.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.5 (d) 2.0
34. A student has to secure 40 % marks to pass. He gets 150 marks and fails by 30 marks. What is the maximum marks?
     (a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 475 (d) 450
35. The circumcentre of an obtuse triangle will always be in the
     (a) Interior of the triangle
     (b) Midpoint of the diameter
     (c) Exterior of the triangle
     (d) Midpoint of the side of the triangle
36. What is the degree measure of a semicircle?
     (a) 360 (b) 90 (c) 270 (d) 180
37. Which among the following is the point of intersection of the medians of a triangle?
     (a) Circumcentre (b) Centroid (c) Orthocenter (d) Incentre
38. The height of a cone and its base diameter are equal. If the base radius is ‘r’ what is its slant height?
     (a) 3r (b) 4r (c) √5r (d) √3r
39. The radii of two spheres are in the ratio 2:3. What is the ratio of their surface areas?
     (a) 4:9 (b) 2:3 (c) 8:27 (d) 4:6
40. What is the common ratio of the progression 3√2, 6, 6√2 ?
     (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) √2 (d) √3
41. In class of 100 students 50 students passed in Mathematics and 70 passed in English, 5 students failed in both Mathematics and English. How many students passed in both the subjects?
     (a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 50 (d) 45
42. Speed of a boat in still water is 9 km/hr. It goes 12 km down stream and comes back to the starting point in three hours.What is the speed of water in the stream?
     (a) 3 km/hr (b) 4 km/hr (c) 4.5 km/hr (d) 5 km/hr
43. A student was asked to add 16 and subtract 10 from a number.He by mistake added 10 and subtracted 16. If his answer is 14 what is the correct answer?
     (a) 20 (b) 26 (c) 30 (d) 32
44. Find the area of a right angled triangle whose hypotenuse is 10 cm and base 8 cm.
     (a) 48 sq.cm (b) 34 sq.cm (c) 24 sq.cm (d) 42 sq.cm
45. Find the next term of the series: 3, 6, 9, 18, 27, 54, ……
     (a) 81 (b) 69 (c) 63 (d) 57
46. A number consists of 20 plus 20% of its value. The number is:
     (a) 20 (b) 22 (c) 25 (d) 30
47. 20% of 5 + 5% of 20 =
     (a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 21
48. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock, when the time is 8.30
     (a) 800 (b) 600 (c) 1050 (d) 750
49. Rs. 1581 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio 10 : 15 : 6. What is the share of B?
     (a) 306 (b) 765 (c) 700 (d) 510
50. The sum of four consecutive counting numbers is 154. Find the smallest number:
     (a) 36 (b) 37 (c) 38 (d) 31
Answers
1 A 11 B 21 C 31 D 41 A
2 B 12 A 22 B 32 D 42 A
3 A 13 D 23 A 33 B 43 B
4 B 14 D 24 C 34 D 44 C
5 C 15 A 25 B 35 C 45 A
6 B 16 C 26 A 36 D 46 C
7 C 17 D 27 B 37 B 47 B
8 D 18 A 28 D 38 C 48 D
9 C 19 C 29 C 39 C 49 B
10 B 20 B 30 B 40 C 50 B


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0 Sample Po Paper

1. Who amongst the following does not belong to political party which is normally referred as left front?
(A) Prakash Karat
(B) A.B.Bardhan
(C) D.Raju
(D) T.J.Chandrachoodan
(E) M.Veerappa Moily
Ans (E) M.Veerappa Moily is a congress leader.

2. Sujat and Balsara villages were in news recently as breach in main Narmada Canal made them flooded. Both these villages are in which of the following States?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Gujarat
(D) Rajasthan
(E) None of these
Ans (C)

3. As per the estimates given by the Asian Development Bank (ADB) the Indian Economy will grow at which of the following rates in 2008 ?
(A) 7%
(B) 7.5%
(C) 8%
(D) 8.5%
(E) None of these
Ans (C)

4. Which of the following is NOT one of the recommendations of the committee setup on Financial Sector Reforms under the Chairmanship of Raghuram G.Rajan ?
(1) Give more freedoms to banks to setup branches and ATMS anywhere
(2) Setup an office of financial ombudsmen
(3) All deposits taking institutions should be free from the supervision of the RBI
(A) Only 1
(B) only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2 & 3
(E) Only 2 & 3
Ans (A)

5. The Govt.  of which of the following States has formed a Fisherman Debt Commission and a moratorium has been placed on proceedings relating to all debts incured by poor fisherman from banks and cooperatives ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Keral
(C) Orissa
(D) Karnataka
(E) None of these
Ans (B)

6. Federal Reserves is the Central Bank of ___
(A) Britain
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Japan
(D) Canada
(E) China
Ans (B)

7. Which of the following was the issue over which one section of the UPA withdrew its support and Union Govt. headed by Dr. Man Mohan Singh was required to prove its majority in the Lok Sabha ?
(1) Inflation , which was on a rise consistently for some time
(2) Reservations of Gurjarrs in Govt. jobs
(3) Nuclear deal with USA
(A) Only 1
(B) only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2
(E) Only 2 & 3
Ans (C)

8. As a gesture to promote denuclearization and also to end nuclear arms programme the cooling tower of a nuclear complex situated in “Youngbyon” was demolished recently. This nuclear complex is in which of the following countries ?
(A) South Korea
(B) Iran
(C) China
(D) North Korea
(E) None of these
Ans (D)

9. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) keeps on modifying various rates / ratios to keep the flow of liquidity in the market in a balanced situation . Which of the following rates/ratios/indexes is NOT directly controlled by the RBI ?
(A) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
(B) Bank Rate
(C) Repo Rate
(D) Reserve Repo Rate
(E) Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
Ans (E)

10. China has signed an agreement with which of the following countries, which will help both the parties to make the East China Sea “a sea of peace, coperation and friendship” ?
(A) North Korea
(B) South Korea
(C) Japan
(D) Russia
(E) All of these
Ans (C)

11. The former President of which of the following countries has taken over as the Prime Minister of the nation in May 2008 ?
(A) Venezuela
(B) Russia
(C) Uganda
(D) Tanzania
(E) None of these
Ans (B)

12. Which of the following companies of Indian origin has been placed amongst the World’s seven Best Firms in Financial Sector ?
(A) IDBI Bank
(B) HDFC Bank
(C) Bajaj Capitals
(D) ICICI Bank
(E) None of these
Ans (B)

13. Michel Sleiman has taken over as the president of ____
(A) Lebanon
(B) Cuba
(C) Yemen
(D) Zambia
(E) Turkey
Ans (A)

14. Which of the following is/are true about the “Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana” to be launched in the near future ?
(1) This scheme is to develop those villages where SC/ST population is in prominence
(2) About 70,000 villages are identified for the same
(3) A special fund of Rs.7,000 Crore is setup for the scheme
(A) Only 1
(B) only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans (A)

15. Which of the following countries had decided to come out of the membership of OPEC ?
(A) Iran
(B) Indonesia
(C) Kuwait
(D) Saudi Arabia
(E) None Of these
Ans (B)

16. Many Banks have adopted / launched “Core Banking Solution (CBS)” .Core Banking Solution is _______
(A) a marketing strategy adopted by the Banks
(B) a new type of ATM useful for rural population
(C) a delivery channel for quick and fast delivery
(D) a new product launched to help senior citizens only as they are not able to visit branches / ATMs frequently
(E) None of these
Ans (C) 

17. As per the figures released recently, the rate of growth of agriculture during 2007-08 has been at the level of approximately ______
(A) 2.5 %
(B) 3 %
(C) 4.5 %
(D) 5 %
(E) 6.33 %
Ans (C)

18. The import of which of the following has raised the Current Account Deficit of India by about 77 % ?
(A) Oil
(B) Gas
(C) Sugar
(D) Foodgrain
(E) None of these
Ans (A)

19. The National e- Governance plan was launched by the Govt. of India in the year 2006 with which of the following intentions/objectives ?
(1) To provide qualitative service of Govt. business to the citizens of India
(2) To promote IT sector in India so that trained IT personnel do not go out of the country for jobs
(3) To keep a vigil on the business transaction of Indian population to avoid illegal transactions
(A) Only 1
(B) only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans (A)

20. As per the figure released recently what was the per capita income at Current Price in the year 2007-08 in India? About ____
(A) Rs. 20,000/-
(B) Rs. 25,000/-
(C) Rs. 23,000/-
(D) Rs. 33,000/-
(E) Rs. 48,000/-
Ans (D)

21. Ana Ivanovic won the “French Open Women’s Singles” of Lawn Tennis after defeating _______
(A) Katrina Srebtnik
(B) Dinara Safina
(C) Virginia Ruano Pascual
(D) Victoria Azarenka
(E) None of these
Ans (B)

22. The World Environment Day is celebrated on which of the following days?
(A) 5TH October
(B) 5TH August
(C) 5TH July
(D) 5TH June
(E) None of these
Ans (D)

23. Who amongst the following is included in the list of “Biggest Brains in Business”?
(A) L. N. Mittal
(B) Anil Ambani
(C) Kumar Mangalam Birla
(D) Mukesh Ambani
(E) Ratan Tata
Ans (A)

24. Which of the following cannot be called as a value Added service offered by a Bank?
(A) Special accounts for poor sections of the society
(B) Accident insurance cover
(C) Instant Credits of Outstation Cheques
(D) Free cheque book
(E) All are value Added services
Ans (D)


All the sample paper is taken from internet during the search ....

0 Computer General Awareness

All the sample paper is taken from internet during the search ....

 1. A ____ is a named location on a disk where files are stored.
A folder
B pod
C version
D none of the above
Ans (A)
2. The ____ allows you to choose where to go and is located below the Standards Buttons toolbar.
A System menu
B Address bar
C Menu bar
D none of the above
Ans (B)
3. A ____ is a set of computer instructions that carry out a task on the computer.
A program
B database
C memory file
D none of the above
Ans (A)
4. An operating system version designed for home use is Microsoft Windows XP ____.
A Home Edition
B Media Center Edition
C Tablet PC Edition
D none of the above
Ans (A)
5. A user-interface that is easy to use is considered to be ____.
A user-happy
B user-simple
C user-friendly
D none of the above
Ans (C)
6. When you press and release the secondary mouse button you are ____.
A Right-clicking
B Left-clicking
C either a. or b.
D neither a. nor b.
Ans (A)
7. Another term for hyperlink is ____.
A link
B source
C bar
D none of the above
Ans (A)
8. A ____ is a flash memory storage device that plugs into a USB port.
A USB snap drive
B USB flash drive
C USB memory maker drive
D none of the above
Ans (B)
9. An operating system version designed for use with a Media Center PC is Microsoft Windows XP ____.
A Home Edition
B Media Center Edition
C Tablet PC Edition
D none of the above
Ans (B)
10. A graphical user interface displays ____.
A graphics
B text
C both (A) and (B).
D neither (A) nor (B).
Ans (C)
11. When you quickly press and release the left mouse button twice, you are ____.
A Primary-clicking
B Double-clicking
C pointing
D none of the above
12. Underlined text, such as text and folder names is referred to as a ____.
A hyperlink
B menu
C source drive
D none of the above
Ans (A)
13. The ____ program compresses larger files into a smaller file.
A WinZip
B WinShrink
C WinStyle
D none of the above
Ans (A)
14. An operating system version designed for use with a tablet PC is Microsoft Windows XP ____.
A Home Edition
B Media Center Edition
C Tablet PC Edition
D none of the above
Ans (C)
15. The ____ displays the name of every computer user on the computer.
A Wish list screen
B Command screen
C Welcome screen
D none of the above
Ans (C)
16. The ____ contains commands associated with the My computer window.
A Standards menu
B Start menu
C System menu
D none of the above
Ans (C)
17. Press the ____ button to have the window fill the entire screen.
A Close
B Maximize
C Minimize
D none of the above
Ans (B)
18. The ____ is the drive containing the files to be copied.
A source drive
B destination drive
C USB drive
D none of the above
Ans (A)
19. A ____ allows you to write on screen with a digital pen and convert that writing into characters that the PC can process.
A monitor RS
B tablet PC
C database manager
D media center
Ans (B)
20. A ____ is a pointing device.
A monitor
B mouse
C keyboard
D none of the above
Ans (B)

0 General English

General English - solved paper of Bank Clerk
Directions—(Q. 41–50) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

The yearly festival was close at hand. The store room was packed with silk fabrics. gold ornaments, clay bowls full of sweet curd and platefuls of sweetmeats. The orders had been placed with shops well in advance. The mother was sending out gifts to everyone.

The eldest son, a government servant, lived with his wife and children in far off lands. The second son had left home at an early age. As a merchant he travelled all over the world. The other sons had split up over petty squabbles, and they now lived in homes of their own. The relatives were spread all across the world. They rarely visited. The youngest son, left in the company of a servant, was soon bored and stood at the door all day long, waiting and watching. His mother, thrilled and excited, loaded the presents on trays and plates, covered them with colourful kerchiefs, and sent them off with maids and servants. The neighbours looked on.

The day came to an end. All the presents had been sent off.

The child came back into the house and dejectedly said to his mother, “Maa, you gave a present to everyone, but you didn’t give me anything !”

His mother laughed, “I have given all the gifts away to everyone, now see what’s left for you.” She kissed him on the forehead.

The child said in a tearful voice, “Don’t I get a gift ?”

“You’ll get it when you go far away.”

“But when I am close to you, don’t I get something from your own hands ?”

His mother reached out her arms and drew him to her. “This is all I have in my own hands. It is the most precious of all.”

41. Why did the woman's second son travel ?
(A) He was restless by nature
(B) He did not want to stay at home
(C) He was rich and could afford to travel
(D) His job was such that he had to travel
(E) None of these

42. Why did the woman’s eldest son not attend the festival ?
(A) He was not on good terms with his youngest brother who lived at home
(B) He had quarrelled with his mother
(C) His wife did not allow him to return home
(D) His job prevented him from taking leave
(E) None of these

43. How did the woman prepare for the festival ?
1. She bought expensive gifts for her children and neighbours.
2. She ordered her servants to prepare sweets and food well in advance.
3. She made sure that her youngest child was looked after so that he wouldn’t be bored.
(A) None
(B) Only 1
(C) Only 2
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3

44. What did the youngest child do while his mother was busy ?
1. He waited for a chance to steal some sweetmeats.
2. He pestered his mother to give him a present.
3. He stood at the door with servants.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 3
(D) Only 3
(E) None of these

45. Which of the following can be said about the woman ?
(A) She was a widow who had brought up her children single handedly
(B) She was not a good mother since her children had left home at an early age
(C) She enjoyed sending her family gifts at festival time
(D) She gave expensive presents to show that she was wealthy
(E) She rarely visited her grand-children because they all lived abroad

46. What did the boy receive from his mother ?
(A) She taught him the value of patience
(B) She encouraged him to grow up and live independently like his brothers
(C) She showed him the importance of giving expensive gifts
(D) She gave him a hug to express her love
(E) None of these

47. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ?
(A) The woman usually ignored her youngest son
(B) The woman’s eldest son lived abroad
(C) The members of the woman’s family did not care about her
(D) The woman made all the preparations herself since she did not want to burden the servants
(E) The woman sent gifts to her children to ensure that they visited her

Directions—(Q. 48–49) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

48. Left
(A) Gone
(B) Quit
(C) Remaining
(D) Disappeared
(E) Forgot

49. Packed
(A) Filled
(B) Squeezed
(C) Crowd
(D) Collected
(E) Untidy

50. Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word dejectedly as used in the passage.
(A) Calmly
(B) Happily
(C) Willingly
(D) Fortunately
(E) Softly

Directions—(Q. 51–55) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

51. Many multinational companies (A) / have not been as (B) /successful in India (C) /than we expected. (D) No error (E)

52. He has ruined (A) /his eyesight (B) /by not using (C) /his spectacles regularly. (D) No error (E)

53. Mostly of the (A) /newly recruited officers (B) /have no experience (C) /in the banking sector. (D) No error (E)

54. The resignation of (A) /one of our directors (B) /have caused the price (C) / of shares to fall. (D) No error (E)

55. There are many (A) /ways of which (B) /inflation can (C) /be measured. (D) No error (E)

Directions—(Q. 56–60) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required.’ mark (E) as the answer.

56. Each of the loan must be approved by the Branch Manager—
(A) Every loan
(B) Each one of the loan
(C) Any of the loan
(D) All of the loan
(E) No correction required

57. The issue was taken before the Municipal Corporation meeting last week—
(A) Taking place at
(B) Taken after
(C) Being taken in
(D) Taken up at
(E) No correction required
58. He has asked for the names of those employees involved in the project.
(A) had asked
(B) having asked about
(C) was asked that
(D) is asking
(E) no correction required

59. Considerate the traffic, it is better to leave for the airport an hour early—
(A) While considering
(B) Consideration of
(C) Considering
(D) Being considerate to
(E) No correction required

60. He is a good leader, knowing that to motivate his employees to achieve—
(A) That known when
(B) Who knows how
(C) Which knows how
(D) Knowing what
(E) No correction required

Directions—(Q. 61–65) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(1) The able bodied men of the tribe gathered to discuss how to climb the mountain.
(2) As part of their plundering they kidnapped a baby of one of the families.
(3) One day the mountain tribe invaded those living in the valley.
(4) “We couldn’t climb the mountain. How could you?”, they asked, “It wasn’t your baby !” she replied.
(5) There were two tribes in the Andes–one lived in the valley and the other high up in the mountains.
(6) Two days later they noticed the child’s mother coming down the mountain that they hadn’t yet figured out how to climb.

61. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)

62. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (6)
(B) (5)
(C) (4)
(D) (3)
(E) (2)

63. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)

64. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)

65. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)

Directions—(Q. 66–70) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence mark (E) i.e., all correct as your answer.

66. The income (A) of many people in rural (B) India is not adequate (C) to satisfy (D) their basic needs. All correct (E)

67. He is always (A) prompt (B) in caring (C) out instructions. (D) All correct (E)

68. The revized (A) rates (B) of interest will be effective (C) immediately. (D) All correct (E)

69. Such transactions (A) are quiet (B) expensive (C) and time consuming (D) for customers. All correct (E)

70. The guidelines (A) of the new scheme (B) are expected (C) to be finally (D) soon. All correct (E)

Directions—(Q. 71–80) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words/ phrases are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

I used to look …(71)… to the holidays. I was usually …(72)… to my uncle’s house where I …(73)… his children. I did not get paid a salary for …(74)… What I received in return however, was far more …(75)… My uncle was an avid reader. During the time I spent with his family I had an …(76)… to read the vast amount of books and magazines that he possessed. This improved my English to some …(77)… Reading became my new …(78–79)… spending my pocket money on a ticket to the cinema I began to …(80)… books. This has benefited me greatly.

71. (A) forward
(B) towards
(C) backward
(D) up
(E) around

72. (A) went
(B) sent
(C) visited
(D) travelled
(E) gone

73. (A) cared
(B) occupy
(C) guarded
(D) taught
(E) played

74. (A) them
(B) whom
(C) this
(D) now
(E) which

75. (A) expensive
(B) deserving
(C) helping
(D) demanding
(E) valuable

76. (A) opportunity
(B) ability
(C) use
(D) encouragement
(E) achievement

77. (A) distance
(B) extent
(C) time
(D) limits
(E) degrees

78. (A) activity
(B) hope
(C) hobby
(D) duty
(E) worship

79. (A) despite
(B) though
(C) by
(D) instead of
(E) while

80. (A) sell
(B) read
(C) exchange
(D) invest
(E) buy

Answers:
41. (D) 42. (E) 43. (A) 44. (D)
45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (B)
48. (C) 49. (A) 50. (C)
51. (D) Replace ‘than’ with ‘as’.
52. (E)
53. (A) Change ‘Mostly’ to ‘Most’.
54. (C) Change ‘have’ to ‘has’.
55. (B) Replace ‘of’ with ‘in’.
56. (A) 57. (D) 58. (E) 59. (C) 60. (B)
61. (C) 62. (A) 63. (E) 64. (D) 65. (B)
66. (E) 67. (C) 68. (A) 69. (E) 70. (D)
71. (A) 72. (B) 73. (D) 74. (C) 75. (E)
76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (C) 79. (D) 80. (E)

All the sample paper is taken from internet during the search ....

0 COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE

COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE FOR BANK EXAM

1.The device consisting of electronic circuitry that executes instructions
to process data is called ____.
a. CPU
b. primary storage
c. secondary storage
d. RAM
e. None of these
Ans (a)
2. A component that expands a computer’s input, storage, or output
capabilities is referred to as a(n) ____ device.
a. input
b. output
c. storage
d. peripheral
e. None of these
Ans (d)
3. Also called laptop computers, ____ are lightweight, portable computers
with built-in monitors, keyboards, hard disk drives, batteries, and AC
adapters.
a. desktop computers
b. microcomputers
c. notebook computers
d. workstations
e. None of these
Ans (c)
4. An input device that converts letters, numbers, and other characters
into electrical signals readable by a processor is called a ____.
a. keyboard
b. mouse
c. printer
d. speaker
e. None of these
Ans (a)

5. A central computer that holds collections of data and programs for
connecting PCs, workstations, and other devices is called a ____.
a. client
b. master
c. slave
d. server
e. None of these
Ans (d)
6. Tower PCs are ____ whose case or main housing sits on a desk, with the
keyboard in front and the monitor on top.
a. minicomputers
b. nanocomputers
c. microcomputers
d. supercomputers
e. None of these
Ans (c)
7. The term that refers to the use of a computer or some other information
device, connected through a network, to access information and services
is ____.
a. telecommuting
b. chatting
c. online
d. email
e. None of these
Ans (c)
8. Users access mainframes by means of a ____, which has a display screen
and a keyboard.
a. client
b. server
c. terminal
d. local area network
e. None of these
Ans (c)
9. What interconnected system of computers all over the world stores
information in a multimedia form?
a. internet
b. World Wide Web
c. wide area network
d. local area network
e. None of these
Ans (b)
10. The technology that merges computing with high-speed communications
links carrying data, sound, and video is ____ technology.
a. information
b. communications
c. telecommunications
d. internet
e. None of these
Ans (a)
11 . One character of data is stored as one ____.
a. byte
b. bit
c. kilobyte
d. gigabyte
e. None of these
Ans (a)
12.Tiny, specialized microprocessors installed in “smart” appliances and
automobiles are called ____.
a. microcomputers
b. microcontrollers
c. servers
d. workstations
e. None of these
Ans (b)
13. A system that connects, usually by special cables, a group of desktop
PCs and other devices such as printers in an office or a building is
called ____.
a. local area network
b. client
c. internet
d. World Wide Web
e. None of these
Ans (a)
14. The next generation of smaller, faster computers that will fit into a
single human cell are known as ____.
a. nanocomputers
b. workstations
c. supercomputers
d. teleputers
e. None of these
Ans (a)
15. The process of copying software programs from secondary storage media to
the system’s hard disk is called ____.
a. download
b. installation
c. upload
d. configuration
e. None of these
Ans (b)
16. Technology that consists of electromagnetic devices and systems for
communicating over long distances is known as ____.
a. communications technology
b. information technology
c. internet
d. networking
e. None of these
Ans (a)
17.Which of the following devices allows users to make phone calls as well
as browse the World Wide Web?
a. teleputers
b. cell phones
c. smartphones
d. modems
e. None of these
Ans (c)
18. High-capacity computers with hundreds of thousands of processors that
can perform more than one trillion calculations per second are called ____.
a. desktop computers
b. supercomputers
c. laptops
d. workstations
e. None of these
Ans (b)
19. Embedded computers are known as ____.
a. microcomputers
b. microcontrollers
c. nanocomputers
d. supercomputers
e. None of these
Ans (b)
20. A communications system connecting two or more computers is called a ____.
a. modem
b. cable
c. telephone line
d. network
e. None of these
Ans (d)
21. Word enables you to do all of the following _except_:
a. create documents
b. edit existing documents
c. format documents
d. learn how to touch type
e. create World Wide Web pages
e. None of these
Ans (d)
22. Which of the following is the term for a toolbar that appears in its own
window, complete with a Title bar and Close button?
a. Standard
b. Formatted
c. Docked
d. Floating
e. None of these


Ans (d)
23. Which toolbar provides access to file management and editing commands,
in addition to special features?
a. Control Toolbox
b. Formatting
c. Standard
d. Frames
e. Reviewing
Ans (c)
24. Word can work with all of the following types of documents _except_:
a. soundtracks
b. World Wide Web pages
c. reports
d. proposals
e. cover letters
Ans (a)
25. Which of the following is _not_ one of the ways you can create a new
document?
a. start with a blank document
b. use a document template
c. use a form letter
d. use a wizard
e. all of these are ways to create a new document
Ans (c)
26. Which of the following will _not_ be located by the Find command?
a. any word
b. any character
c. tab symbol
d. paragraph symbol
e. all of these will be located by Find
Ans (e)
27. The Replace command enables you to search for and replace all of the
following _except_
a. text
b. nonprinting characters
c. grammatical errors
d. formatting characteristics
e. all of these are found and replaced
Ans (c)
28. Which of the following can you not locate using the Find command?
a. text
b. tables
c. formatting characteristics
d. nonprinting characters
e. all of these can be located
Ans (b)
29. The cut, copy, and paste buttons are normally located on which toolbar?
a. Status
b. Menu
c. Standard
d. Formatting
e. Title
Ans (c)
30. When conducting a Spelling and Grammar check, potential spelling errors
are shown in
a. green
b. yellow
c. red
d. blue
e. purple
Ans (c)
31. Using a user name and password, the ISP will allow the user to connect
or ____.
a. log on
b. download
c. upload
d. log out
e. None of these
Ans (a)
32. What consists of hardware and software and allows voice, video, and data
to be communicated over traditional copper-wire telephone lines?
a. ISDN
b. cable modem
c. communications satellite
d. bandwidth
e. None of these
Ans (a)
33. ISP stands for ____.
a. internet select provider
b. internet service provider
c. internet serial provider
d. internet service pusher
e. None of these
Ans (b)
34. Which of the following is NOT an example of a download?
a. Saving pictures from the internet to your hard drive.
b. Storing a map for your vacation from the internet to your hard drive.
c. Saving a presentation to a CD.
d. Saving a program from an internet site to your hard drive.
e. None of these
Ans (c)
35. If you wish to be part of an online discussions on a favorite topic of
interest, you would subscribe to a(n) ____.
a. instant message service
b. listserv
c. spam tracking
d. online group
e. None of these
Ans (b)
36. Which of the following is NOT a suggested way to deal with spam?
a. Delete without opening.
b. Immediately reply requesting to be removed from the mailing list.
c. Contact the ISP.
d. Check with abuse.net to find where to report offenders.
e. None of these
Ans (b)
37. A set of communications rules for exchanging information is called a ____.
a. web browser
b. HTML
c. URL
d. protocol
e. None of these
Ans (d)
38. Gigabits per second are ____.
a. 1 hundred bits per second
b. 1 thousand bits per second
c. 1 million bits per second
d. 1 billion bits per second
e. None of these
Ans (d)
39. The transmission of data from a local computer to a remote computer is
called ____.
a. upload
b. download
c. broadband
d. bandwidth
e. None of these
Ans (a)
40. An expression for how much data can be sent through a communications
channel in a given amount of time is referred to as ____.
a. connectivity
b. dial-up
c. bandwidth
d. download
e. None of these
Ans (c)
41. The communications rules or protocols that allow browsers to connect
with web servers is ____.
a. HTTP
b. HTML
c. Java
d. URL
e. None of these
Ans (a)
42. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of DSL?
a. fast download
b. connection always on
c. consistent transmission rate
d. universal availability
e. None of these
Ans (d)
43. An automatic email mailing list of people who regularly participate in
discussion topics are called ____.
a. attachments
b. instant messaging
c. listserv
d. spam
e. None of these
Ans (c)
44. The internet connection that uses regular phone lines to transmit data
in megabits per second is ____.
a. T1 line
b. cable modem
c. DSL line
d. communications satellite
e. None of these
Ans (c)
45. The location of a web domain name in a computer somewhere on the
internet is called a ____.
a. home page
b. web page
c. website
d. web portal
e. None of these
Ans (c)
46. Bps stands for ____.
a. bytes per second
b. bits per second
c. bandwidth per second
d. broadband per second
e. None of these
Ans (b)
47. Generally, a very high-speed internet connection is referred to as ____.
a. broadband
b. dial-up
c. bandwidth
d. upload
e. None of these
Ans (a)
48. If you were emailing a term paper and wanted to maintain its formatting,
it would be sent as a(n) ____.
a. regular email
b. instant message
c. listserv message
d. attachment
e. None of these
Ans (d)
49. The .gov, .com, .net and .edu extensions are examples of ____.
a. emoticons
b. FAQs
c. top-level domains
d. URLs
e. None of these
ns (c)
50. An independently controllable section of a web page is called a ____.
a. hyperlink
b. web site
c. frame
d. window
e. None of these
Ans (c)

All the sample paper is taken from internet during the search ....

0 Parliament of Other Countries

Parliament of Other Countries
Country	Parliament
Afghanistan	Shora
Australia	Parliament
Bangladesh	Jatia Parliament
Bhutan	Tasongadu
Canada	Parliament
China	National People Congress
Denmark	Folketing
Egypt	People’s Assembly
France	National Assembly
Germany	Bundestag
Great Britain	Parliament
India	Parliament (Sansad)
Iran	Majlis
Ireland	Dail Eireann
Israel	Knesset
Japan	Diet
Malaysia	Majlis
Maldive	Majlis
Magnolia	Khural
Nepal	Rasthtriya Panchayat
Netherlands	States General
Norway	Storting
Pakistan	National Assembly
Poland	Scym
Spain	Crotes
Sweden	Riksdag
South Africa	Parliament
Switzerland	Federal Assembly
Russia	Duma
Taiwan	Yuan
Turkey	Grand National Assembly
U.S.A.	Congress

All the sample paper is taken from internet during the search ....

0 Sports Gk

Many of you may already know that Hockey World Cup 2010 is being held in India. What a pleasant start it was when India beat Pakistan by 4-1 in the opening match.
Since this is an important event in Indian Sports history, we are providing some details which may fetch you some marks in the GK Section of forthcoming exams.

Hockey World Cup

Organised By: International Hockey Federation (FIH)
Started: 1971
Schedule: held every four years
Trophy Designed By: Bashir Moojid
Trophy Created By: Pakistani Army
Trophy: a silver cup with an intricate floral design, surmounted by a globe of the world in silver and gold, placed on a high blade base inlaid with ivory. At its peak is a model hockey stick and ball.
Five countries have dominated the event's history. Pakistan is the most successful team, having won the tournament four times. The Netherlands have won three titles, and Germany has won two titles. India and Australia have each won the tournament once.

History of Hockey World Cup:

Pakistan's Air Marshal Nur Khan originated the idea of a Hockey World Cup was. FIH approved the idea and it was decided that inaugural World Cup would be held in October 1971, in Pakistan.
The Cup could not be held in Pakistan, as Pakistanis led by cricketer Abdul Hafeez Kardar, protested against India's participation in the Hockey World Cup. So it was moved to Real Club de Polo grounds in Barcelona, Spain, a neutral and peaceful European site.

World Cup Winners:

Year	Venue	Winner	Runner Up	Second Runner Up
1971	Barcelona, Spain	Pakistan	Spain	India
1973	Amstelveen, Netherlands	Netherlands	India	West Germany
1975	Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia	India	Pakistan	West Germany
1978	Buenos Aires, Argentina	Pakistan	Netherlands	Australia
1982	Mumbai (Bombay), India	Pakistan	West Germany	Australia
1986	London, England	Australia	England	West Germany
1990	Lahore, Pakistan	Netherlands	Pakistan	Australia
1994	Sydney, Australia	Pakistan	Netherlands	Australia
1998	Utrecht, Netherlands	Netherlands	Spain	Australia
2002	Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia	Germany	Australia	Netherlands
2006	Mönchengladbach, Germany	Germany	Australia	Spain
2010	New Delhi, India	--	--	--

Most Successful Teams

Team	Wins	Appearances in Final
Pakistan	4 (1971, 1978, 1982, 1994)	6
Netherlands	3 (1973, 1990, 1998)	5
Germany	2 (2002, 2006)	3
Australia	1 (1986)
India	1 (1975)

Hero Honda World Cup 2010

Teams:
Pool A:
Germany, Netherlands, Korea, New Zealand, Canada, Argentina
Pool B:
Australia, Spain, England, Pakistan, India, South Africa
Host country: India
City: Delhi
Teams: 12
Venue: Dhyan Chand National Stadium

All the sample paper is taken from internet during the search ....

0 Computer General Knowledge

Computer General Knowledge

1. If a word is typed that is not in Word’s dictionary, a ___ wavy underline appears below the word.
(A) red
(B) green
(C) blue
(D) black
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
2. The _____ button on the quick access Toolbar allows you to cancel your recent commands or actions.
(A) Search
(B) Cut
(C) Document
(D) Undo
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
3. In Excel, any set of characters containing a letter , hyphen, or space is considered ___
(A) a formula
(B) text
(C) a name
(D) a title
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
4. ________ Software allows users to perform calculations on rows and columns of data.
(A) Word processing
(B) Presentation graphics
(C) Database Management Systems
(D) Electronic Spreadsheet
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
5. A _________ represent approximately one billion memory locations.
(A) kilobyte
(B) megabyte
(C) gigabyte
(D) terabyte
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
6. ______ cells involves creating a single cell by combining two or more selected cells.
(A) Formatting
(B) Merging
(C) Embedding
(D) Splitting
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
7. The operating system is the most common type of ______________ software.
(A) communication
(B) application
(C) system
(D) word-processing
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
8. When you quickly press and releaes the left mouse button twice , you are ____
(A) Primary-clicking
(B) pointing
(C) Double-clicking
(D) Secondary-clicking
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
9. The horizontal and vertical lines on a worksheet are called ___
(A) cells
(B) sheets
(C) block lines
(D) gridlines
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
10. To delete an incorrect character in a document, __________ to erase to the right of the insertion point.
(A) press the left mouse key
(B) double-click the right mouse key
(C) press the BACKSPACE key
(D) press the delete key
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
11. The operating system does all of the following EXCEPT:
A provide a way for the user to interact with the computer.
B manage the central processing unit (CPU).
C manage memory and storage.
D enable users to perform a specific task such as document editing.
Ans (D)
12. During the boot process, the ____________ looks for the system files.
A CD
B. BIOS
C. CPU
D. DVD
AnS (B)
13. ____________ are lists of commands that appear on the screen.
A GUIs
B Icons
C Menus
D Windows
Answer: C
14. ____________ is the ability of an operating system to control the activities of multiple programs at the same time.
A Multitasking
B Streamlining
C Multiuser
D Simulcasting
Answer: A
15. The unique signal, generated by a device, that tells the operating system that it is in need of immediate attention is called an:
A action.
B event.
C interrupt.
D activity.
Answer: C
16. The operating system controls access to the processor by assigning a(n) ____________ to each task requiring the processor’s attention.
A CPU
B slice of time
C stack
D event
Answer: B
17. The blocks of code, included in the operating system, that software applications interact with are known as:
A application programming interfaces (APIs).
B complimentary metal-oxide conductors (CMOS).
C device drivers.
D bootstrap loaders.
Answer: A
18. MS-DOS is a ____________ operating system.
A point-and-click
B user-friendly
C command-driven
D Mac
Answer: C
19. An interrupt handler is a(n):
A location in memory that keeps track of recently generated interrupts.
B peripheral device.
C utility program.
D special numeric code that indicates the priority of a request.
Answer: D
20. A spooler is a(n):
A location in memory that maintains the contents of a document until it prints out.
B print job.
C program that coordinates the print jobs that are waiting to print.
D message sent from the printer to the operating system when a print job is completed.
Answer: C
21. Virtual memory is typically located:
A on a floppy disk.
B in the CPU.
C in a flash card.
D on the hard drive.
Answer: D
22. The purpose of a swap (or page) file is to:
A maintain pages of documents that are being spooled to the printer.
B hold a program’s data or instructions in virtual memory when it can’t fit in RAM.
C prevent thrashing in a multitasking environment.
D allow multiple print jobs to print their pages out simultaneously.
Answer: B
23. The definition of thrashing is:
A swapping data between virtual memory and RAM too frequently.
B insufficient hard disk space.
C too many processors being managed by the operating system.
D inaccurate information stored in the registry.
Answer: A
24. All of the following are TRUE of Safe Mode EXCEPT:
A Safe Mode is a special diagnostic mode.
B Safe Mode loads all nonessential icons.
C Safe Mode allows users to troubleshoot errors.
D Safe Mode loads only the most essential devices.
Answer: B
25. Verification of a login name and password is known as:
A configuration.
B accessibility.
C authentication.
D logging in.
Answer: C
26. The combination of the operating system and the processor is referred to as the computer’s:
A CPU.
B platform.
C BIOS.
D CMOS.
Answer: B
27. The following message generally means:
A a nonsystem floppy has been left in the floppy disk drive.
B the CD drive is not functioning.
C the BIOS is corrupted.
D there is a problem loading a device.
Answer: A
28. Which of the following is the correct sequence of actions that takes place during the boot-up process?
A Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Check configuration settings
B Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Check configuration settings
C Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings
D Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings ? Perform POST ? Load operating system
Answer: B
29. All of the following are steps involved in the boot process EXCEPT:
A load the operating system into RAM.
B the power-on self-test.
C activate the basic input/output system (BIOS).
D load application programs.
Answer: D
30. The ____________, stored on a ROM chip, is responsible for loading the operating system from its permanent location on the hard drive into RAM.
A BIOS
B API
C device driver
D supervisor program
Answer: A
31. The basic input/output system (BIOS) is stored in:
A RAM.
B ROM.
C the CPU.
D the hard drive.
Answer: B
32. Ensuring that the essential peripheral devices are attached and operational is the ____________ process.
A configuration
B CMOS
C POST
D ROM
Answer: C
33. The memory resident portion of the operating system is called the:
A registry.
B API.
C CMOS.
D kernel.
Answer: D
34. Which of the following does NOT occur during the power-on self-test (POST)?
A The ScanDisk utility begins to run.
B The video card and video memory are tested.
C The BIOS identification process occurs.
D Memory chips are checked to ensure they are working properly.
Answer: A
35. All of the following are TRUE regarding virtual memory EXCEPT:
A any amount of RAM can be allocated to virtual memory.
B the setting for the amount of hard drive space to allocate to virtual memory can be manually changed.
C this temporary storage is called the swap file (or page file).
D virtual memory is physical space on the hard drive.
Answer: A
36. The operating system allows users to organize the computer’s contents in a hierarchical structure of directories that include all of the following EXCEPT:
A files.
B folders.
D drives.
D systems.
Answer: D
37. All of the following statements concerning windows are true EXCEPT:
A windows are an example of a command-driven environment.
B windows can be resized and repositioned on the desktop.
C more than one window can be open at a time.
D toolbars and scrollbars are features of windows.
Answer: A
38. All of the following statements concerning files are true EXCEPT:
A A file is a collection of related pieces of information stored together for easy reference.
B Files can be generated from an application.
C Files are stored in RAM.
D Files should be organized in folders.
Answer: C
39. Using Windows Explorer, a plus (+) sign in front of a folder indicates:
A an open folder.
B the folder contains subfolders.
C a text file.
D a graphics file.
Answer: B
40. In Windows XP, if you want to see the file size and modified dates of all files in a folder, the best viewing option is the __________ view.
A List
B Thumbnails
C Details
D Icon
Answer: C

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0 Nobel Prize Winner

Rabindra Nath Tagore C. V. Raman Har Govind Khurana Mother Teresa Amartya Sen R. K. Pachuri 1913 in Literature 1930 in Physics 1968 for Medicine 1979 for Peace 1998 for Economics 2007 for Peace
Nobel Prize Winner - 2009
Winner's Name	Field	Country	Work
Elizabeth Blackburn Carol Greider Jack Szostak	Medicine	USA	For the discovery of how chromosomes are protected by telomeres and the enzyme telomerase.
Charles K. Kao Willard S. Boyle George E. Smith	Physics	USA	For groundbreaking achievements concerning the transmission of light in fibers for optical communication. And the invention of an imaging semiconductor circuit – the CCD sensor.
V. Ramakrishnan Thomas A. Steitz Ada E. Yonath	Chemistry	UK USA Israel	For studies of the structure and function of the ribosome
Barack Obama	Peace	USA	For his extraordinary efforts to strengthen international diplomacy and cooperation between peoples
Herta Müller	Literature	Germany	For the concentration of poetry and the frankness of prose, depicts the landscape of the dispossessed
Elinor Ostrom Oliver E. Williamson	Economics	USA	For her analysis of economic governance, especially the commons. For his analysis of economic governance, especially the boundaries of the firm
Nobel Prize Winner - 2008
Winner's Name	Field	Country	Work
Martti A	Peace	Finland	Who has worked to end conflicts in troubled spots around the world for more than three decades
Paul Krugman	Economics	USA	For his analysis of trade patterns and location of economic activity.
Jean-Marie Gustave Le Clézio	Literature	France	Whose work reflects a seemingly insatiable restlessness and sense of wonder about other places and other cultures
Harald zur Hausen Francoise Barre-Sinoussi Luc Montagnier	Medicine	Germany France France	His discovery led to the development of two vaccines against cervical cancer, the second most common cancer among women. The viral discovery has also led to an understanding of the natural history of H.I.V. infection in people, which ultimately leads to AIDS and death unless treated.
Yoichiro Nambu Makoto Kobayashi Toshihide Maskawa	Physics	USA Japan Japan	For their work exploring the hidden symmetries among elementary particles that are the deepest constituents of nature.
Osamu Shimomura Martin Chalfie Roger Y. Tsien	Chemistry	Japan USA USA	For taking the ability of some jellyfish to glow green and transforming it into a ubiquitous tool of molecular biology to watch the dance of living cells and the proteins within them.
Nobel Prize Winner - 2007
Winner's Name	Field	Country	Work
Al Gore R. K. Pachuri	Peace	USA India	for their efforts to build up and disseminate greater knowledge about man-made climate change.
Leonid Hurwicz Eric S. Maskin Roger B. Myerson	Economics	USA	For their work in mechanism design theory, a branch of economics that looks at the design of institutions in situations where markets do not work properly.
Doris Lessing	Literature	UK	Whose deeply autobiographical writing has swept across continents and reflects her engagement with the social and political issues of her time
Mario R. Capecchi Oliver Smithies Martin J. Evans	Medicine	USA USA UK	For developing the immensely powerful “knockout” technology that allows scientists to create animal models of human disease in mice.
Albert Fert Peter Grünberg	Physics	France Germany	They have discovered how to manipulate the magnetic and electrical properties of thin layers of atoms to store vast amounts of data on tiny disks, making iPods and other wonders of modern life possible
Gerhard Ertl	Chemistry	Germany	Whose studies of chemical reactions on solid surfaces have affected agriculture, manufacturing and environmental science
Nobel Prize Winner - 2006
Winner's Name	Field	Country	Work
Muhammad Yunus	Peace	Bangladesh	For pioneering work in giving tiny loans to millions of poor people no commercial bank would touch — destitute widows and abandoned wives, landless laborers and rickshaw drivers, sweepers and beggars.
Edmund S. Phelps	Economics	USA	For his contribution to a sophisticated explanation of how wages, unemployment and inflation interact with one another.
Orhan Pamuk	Literature	Turkey	Whose exquisitely constructed, wistful prose explores the agonized dance between Muslims and the West and between past and present
Andrew Z. Fire Craig C. Mello	Medicine	USA	A far-reaching discovery about how genes are controlled within living cells
John C. Mather George F. Smoot	Physics	USA	To uncovered evidence on the origin of the universe and how it grew into galaxies
Roger D. Kornberg	Chemistry	USA	For showing how genes convey their messages in cells to copy functions like making proteins.

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0 Probationary Officers

Bank Probationary Officers

General Awareness


1. As we all know rise of the ‘BRICs’ has left a vast impact on almost all aspects of the global economy. However, which of the following cannot be called as the direct effect(s) of ‘Rise of the BRICs’ on global/other powerful economy/economies ?
1. Countries like China wish to learn more about outsourcing from India.
2. It has made countries to suffer from Sub-prime Crisis.
3. EURO has become a powerful currency and many non-Euro countries are in ‘Swap Agreement’ with various nations.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these

2. As per the reports published in the newspapers/journals how much amount the Govt. of India is planning to infuse in Public Sector Banks to make them competitive and strong globally ?
About—
(A) Rs. 10,000 crore
(B) Rs. 15,000 crore
(C) Rs. 20,000 crore
(D) Rs. 25,000 crore
(E) Rs. 30,000 crore

3. What is the maximum stake the Govt. of India has in any public sector bank at present ?
(A) 40%
(B) 49%
(C) 50%
(D) 64%
(E) 74%

4. Which of the following is not a major highlight of the Union Budget 2008-09 ?
1. A target of Rs. 2•80 lakhs crore is fixed for providing credit to agriculture sector.
2. Limit of the Banking Cash Transaction Tax is raised from present 1% to 1•5%.
3. PAN requirement is not mandatory for financial transactions. Other Ids are also acceptable.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 2 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3

5. As per the news in major financial newspapers a ‘Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana’ is launched in Delhi and Haryana States for members of unorganized sectors. Under the scheme each family is likely to get the benefit of Rs.………
(A) 15,000
(B) 20,000
(C) 25,000
(D) 30,000
(E) 50,000

6. As proposed in the Union Budget 2008-09 a ‘Risk Capital Fund’ is set up by the Govt. of India. Who amongst the following will maintain and operate that fund ?
(A) NABARD
(B) SIDBI
(C) ECGC
(D) RBI
(E) None of these

7. As per the Economic Survey 2007-08 presented in the Lok Sabha in February 2008, what has been the percentage growth in Bank credit ? About—
(A) 10%
(B) 15%
(C) 18%
(D) 21%
(E) 26%

8. As per the budget of the Indian Railways for 2008-09 the operating ratio of the railways has—
(A) Improved only by 0•5%
(B) Decreased by 0•5%
(C) Remained at the same level on which it was in 2007-08
(D) Reached at the level of 81%
(E) Reduced to the level of 63% which was the level of 2000-01

9. The government of India has launched a new scheme for the ‘Girl Child’. What is the name of the scheme ?
(A) Raj Lakshmi
(B) Rani Bitia
(C) Dhan Lakshmi
(D) Aanandita
(E) None of these

10. The President of India recently signed the much-awaited notification for the implementation of the suggestions made by the ‘Delimitation Commission’.
What will be the effect of this notification ?
(A) Parliamentary and Assembly constituencies will be redefined
(B) Candidates from SC/ST categories will get all benefits for another 15 years’ time
(C) The boundaries of the National Capital, New Delhi will be extended further
(D) Operations of the Cooperative Banks and Societies will not be limited to the state of their origin. They will also be like Public Sector Banks
(E) None of these

11. As per the new policy the number of Judges in the Supreme Court would be now—
(A) 21
(B) 25
(C) 26
(D) 30
(E) 31

12. As per the reports published in the newspapers the banks, particularly public sector banks are tying up with various rating agencies for providing a qualitative assessment of the credit needs of the borrowers. Which amongst the following is/are such credit rating agencies in India ?
1. CARE
2. CRISIL
3. ULIP
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) Only 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3

13. As per the newspaper reports the RBI is planning to introduce ‘Plastic Currency Notes’. What is/are the benefits of ‘Plastic Notes’ ?
1. Their Shelf life will be longer.
2. It will replace plastic money or credit, debit cards which are giving birth to many fraudulent practices.
3. Printing will be cheaper.
(A) Only 3
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these

14. ‘Sub Prime Lending’ is a term applied to the loans made to—
(A) Those borrowers who do not have a good credit history
(B) Those who wish to take loan against the mortgage of tangible assets
(C) Those who have a good credit history and are known to bank since 10 years
(D) Those borrowers who are most preferred customers of the Bank
(E) None of these

15. As per the reports published in various journals and newspapers the ‘small borrowers’ in rural areas still prefer to take informal route for their credit needs. Which of the following is the ‘informal route’ of credit in financial sector ?
(A) Credit cards
(B) Loan against gold from financial institute
(C) Debit cards
(D) Money lender
(E) None of these

16. The Planning Commission of India has set up a 12 member committee on financial sector reforms. Who is the Chairman of the Committee ?
(A) Janki Raman
(B) Raghuram Rajan
(C) Rakesh Mohan
(D) K. V. Kamath
(E) None of these

17. Basel-II norms are associated with which of the following aspects of the banking industry ?
(A) Risk management
(B) Manpower planning
(C) Retirement benefits for the employees
(D) Corporate Governance
(E) None of these

18. What is meant by ‘Underwriting’ the term frequently used in financial sector ?
(A) Under valuation of the assets
(B) The Act of taking on a risk for a fee
(C) Giving a Guarantee that a loan will not become a bad loan
(D) The act of permission to float an IPO
(E) None of these

19. The government of India recently constituted the New Finance Commission (13th). What are its major functions ? To decide—
1. The salary structure of the employees of the Central Government.
2. The distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between states and Central Govt.
3. Rate of Income Tax and other taxes collected by the Union Govt.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these

20. Who amongst the following was the Captain of the Indian cricket team which registered its victory in tri-series ODI matches against Australia played in March 2008 ?
(A) M.S. Dhoni
(B) Anil Kumble
(C) Rahul Dravid
(D) Saurav Ganguly
(E) Sachin Tendulkar

21. Mr. Nicolas Sarkozy who was the chief guest during the Republic Day Function 2008 is the—
(A) President of Brazil
(B) Prime Minister of Brazil
(C) President of France
(D) Prime Minister of France
(E) Foreign Secretary of USA

22. Who amongst the following has taken over as the President of Serbia after the General elections held there in February 2008 ?
(A) Boris Tadic
(B) Tomislav Nicolic
(C) Samak Sundaravej
(D) Novak Djokovic
(E) None of these

23. Indra K. Nooyi who was elected as the Chairperson of the US-India Business Council is the CEO of which of the following Companies ?
(A) Pepsi Co.
(B) Infosys
(C) Tata Consultancy Services
(D) NIIT
(E) None of these

24. Maria Sharapova won the Australian Open 2008 Women’s singles by defeating—
(A) Shahar Peer
(B) Kateryna Bondarenko
(C) Sania Mirza
(D) Victoria Azarenka
(E) Ana Ivanovic

25. Saina Nehwal won the Seniors’ Championship match of which of the following games held in Goa in January 2008 ?
(A) Golf
(B) Tennis
(C) Table tennis
(D) Archery
(E) Badminton


26. As per the news published in some newspapers magazines two PSUs National Thermal Power Corporation and Coal India Ltd. are going to float a joint venture ‘SPV’. What is the full form of ‘SPV’ ?
(A) Small Power Venture
(B) Special Purpose Vehicle
(C) Special Power Venture
(D) Small Purpose Vehicle
(E) None of these

27. The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) recently agreed to allow foreign direct investment in the field of mobile television services. Upto what extent FDI is allowed in this field ?
(A) 50%
(B) 60%
(C) 64%
(D) 70%
(E) 74%

28. As per the performance assessment data released by the Economic Advisory Council (EAC) in January 2008. Which of the following sectors registered a growth of 3•6 per cent ?
(A) Agriculture Sector
(B) Banking Sector
(C) Tourism Sector
(D) Aviation Services Sector
(E) None of these

29. Which of the following is the name of very violent and serious types of winds which bring lot of disaster ?
(A) Trade winds
(B) Hurricane
(C) Cirrus
(D) Stratus
(E) None of these

30. The Global Employment Trends Report 2008 published by the International Labour Organization has indicated that there may be increase in global unemployment. What according to them is/are the major reasons of this possibility ?
1. Turmoil in Credit Markets all over the world.
2. Rise in oil prices in international market.
3. Civil unrest in some under and undeveloped nations.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) None of these

31. As we have noticed many banks of Indian origin are opening offices/branches in foreign countries. Why is this trend emerging at a very fast pace ?
1. These Banks wish to provide banking facilities to foreigners as banking facilities are not plenty in many foreign countries. India wants to take an advantage of the situation.
2. These banks wish to help Indian firms to acquire funds at internationally competitive rates.
3. These banks wish to promote trade and investment between India and other countries.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) Only 2 and 3

32. Many economists, bankers and researchers in India often advocate that banks should equip themselves for new challenges. These challenges are in which of the following shapes/forms ?
1. As Indian economy is getting increasingly integrated with the rest of the world the demand of the Corporate banking is likely to change in terms of size, composition of services and also the quality.
2. The growing foreign trade in India will have to be financed by the local banks.
3. Foreigners are habitual of the comforts provided by the technology. India has to do a lot in this reference.
(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Only 3 is correct
(D) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(E) None of these

33. As per the reports published in the newspapers Indian Rupee is now fully accepted in Asian countries like, Singapore, Hong Kong, Malaysia etc. What does it really mean ?
1. Anybody from Asian country can purchase Indian Rupee and keep it in his/her bank account in his/her country without any restrictions.
2. Now people in these nations are not required to go for a double conversion first in dollar and then in rupee.
3. People travelling European/Asian countries can make their payments in rupee anywhere without any problem.
(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Only 3 is correct
(D) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(E) None of these

34. Which of the following is not a banking/finance related term ?
(A) Credit wrap
(B) EMI
(C) Held to Maturity
(D) Exposure limit
(E) Diffusion

35. Very often we read about the Doha Ministerial Conference 2001 in reference to WTO negotiations. What were the major issues over which nations were of different opinions ?
1. Providing subsidy to agriculture.
2. Export of patented drugs/medicines by developed nations.
3. Restriction on natural movement of people from one nation to other.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 3
(E) None of these

36. The Technology Mission on Cotton was launched during Xth plan. The scheme was designed to get increase in production of cotton by which of the following levels by the end of the plan ?
(A) 100 lakh bales
(B) 150 lakh bales
(C) 175 lakh bales
(D) 200 lakh bales
(E) None of these

37. A National Development Fund was created by the Government of India a few years ago. What was the purpose of the fund ?
1. Boost investment in social sector projects to promote education, healthcare and
employment.
2. Capital investments in selected profitable PSEs to yield adequate returns.
3. To fund revision in pay structure of Central Government employees.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) None of these

38. Olympic 2008 are scheduled to be held in—
(A) Paris
(B) Tokyo
(C) London
(D) Moscow
(E) None of these

39. The general elections took place in which of the following countries in March 2008 ?
(A) Iran
(B) Iraq
(C) Afghanistan
(D) Myanmar
(E) Sri Lanka

40. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Economic Nightmare of India’ ?
(A) Morarji Desai
(B) K. Rajeshwar Rao
(C) Charan Singh
(D) Jyoti Basu
(E) None of these

41. As per the targets for 11th plan educated unemployment is to be reduced to which of the following levels ?
(A) 5%
(B) 6%
(C) 7%
(D) 8%
(E) 9%

42. ‘Long Walk’ to Freedom’ is a book written by—
(A) Sonia Gandhi
(B) L. K. Advani
(C) Nelson Mandela
(D) Benazir Bhutto
(E) Nawaz Sheriff

43. India recently signed a pact with which of the following countries on solving the problems of Indian labour in that country ?
(A) Iran
(B) UAE
(C) Malaysia
(D) Kuwait
(E) None of these

44. Which of the following countries is trying to launch a Satellite to study the sun ?
(A) USA
(B) India
(C) Russia
(D) China
(E) None of these

45. Jang Hyun Jong who was adjudged as the ‘Asian Hockey Player of the year’ is from—
(A) China
(B) Singapore
(C) South Korea
(D) India
(E) None of these

46. Who amongst the following is the winner of Padma Vibhushan Awards given away recently ?
(A) Rahul Gandhi
(B) Priya Dutt
(C) Vinod Dua
(D) Ratan Tata
(E) None of these

47. Which of the following films was adjudged ‘Best Film’ in 14th Star Screen Awards given away in January 2008 ?
(A) Om Shanti Om
(B) Guru
(C) Taare Zameen Par
(D) Jab We Met
(E) Chak De India

48. A meeting of the European Leaders was held in January 2008 at which of the following places to discuss ‘Global Economic Turmoil’ ?
(A) London
(B) New Delhi
(C) New York
(D) Tokyo
(E) Milan

49. Castro Sibling is the new President of—
(A) Romania
(B) Cuba
(C) Israel
(D) Venezuela
(E) None of these

50. Kosovo declared itself independent from which of the following countries ?
(A) Ukraine
(B) Croatia
(C) Serbia
(D) Russia
(E) None of these

Answers with Explanations :

1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (E) 4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (B)
7. (D) According to Economic Survey 2007-08, the percentage growth in bank credit is 21•5%.
8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (A) 11. (E) 12. (A)
13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (B) 17. (A)
18. (A) 19. (B) 20. (A) 21. (C) 22. (A)
23. (A) 24. (E) 25. (E) 26. (B) 27. (E)
28. (A) 29. (B) 30. (D) 31. (E) 32. (A)
33. (D) 34. (E) 35. (A) 36. (D) 37. (A)
38. (E) 39. (A) 40. (C) 41. (A) 42. (C)
43. (D) 44. (A) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (E)
48. (A) 49. (E) 50. (E)




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